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Hi All,
My client has a company code located in country A.
This company has an office with some employees in country B which, of course, has a different currency.
There is no company code created in this second country so the currency of the company code is the one of country A.
They are not going to create a company code for country B.
We need to pay those guys in the currency of country B.
I know I can enter the currency in each and every infotype where I store wage types but what I'm not sure of is how the payroll will behave.
If I store the wage types in IT 0008,0014 and 0015 with the currency of country B, will I get the results and a payslip in the same currency?
I hope someone out there faced this situation before and can give some light on this
Thanks a lot in advance
Fernando
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