Announcement:
wanna exchange links? contact me at sapchatroom@gmail.com.
Posted by
Admin at
Reply from pankaj83 on Sep 22 at 12:46 AM Hi Nikki,
Thank you so much for such a nice explanation.
I have read at many places that Asset Accounts are not valuated but always translated while rest of the accounts are first valuated & then translated. Our accounts are in Polish currency & has to be converted to USD. This issues are mostly with Asset Accounts & OIM accounts which are configured at OBA1--KDF. We have maintained all these account at variant of FAGL_FC_VAL.
Any advice.
Regards
Pankaj
| | | ---------------Original Message---------------
From: pankaj83
Sent: Saturday, September 19, 2015 1:03 AM
Subject: Discussion on Foreign Currency Valuation
Hi all,
I have few questions regarding foreign currency valuation & translation i.e. FAGL_FC_VAL & FAGL_FC_TRANS.
a) Is Asset account always translated not valuated i.e. through FAGL_FC_TRANS not FAGL_FC_VAL?
b) Are shadow accounts/balance sheet adj 1 account mentioned in OBA1 valuated as well? In my view only main account (reconciliation or Open Item Management) to be valuated in this case.
c) Are normal G/L accounts (without reconciliation or Open Item Management) valuated as well. If yes does these accounts need shadow accounts/balance sheet adj 1 account. I think they are valuated but not required any shadow account.
d) What is delta logic in Foreign Currency Valuation? why it is required?
e) Are Profit & Loss accounts valuated as well?
Please advise. A healthy discussion would be appreciated.
Regards
Pankaj |
| Reply to this email to post your response. __.____._ | In the Spotlight Become a blogger at Toolbox.com and share your expertise with the community. Start today.  _.____.__ |
