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Hey David,
I did push it back to SAP and they revert back to me saying Monthly Period Parameter 01 is hardcoded in RPTIME00 program. The detail form them is below.
The reason on why 01 - monthly is always used is outlined below:
'The TRMAC macro RP-DEF-TIME-PERIOD should always be one constant value
and NEVER be changed in a productive system. We do not see any reasons
why the RPTIME_PERIOD should not be '01' monthly for all employees as
the RPTIME_PERIOD is independent from the Payroll Period.'
Period parameter 01 is hard coded in a macro RP-DEF-TIME-PERIOD and
RPTIME00 use it. If you would like to use Period parameter other than
01, you need to modify the macro in table TRMAC. In this case, you must
regenerate RPTIME00. Otherwise the previous value '01' will be taken by
the system. It is not recommended to use Period parameter other than
"01" and this is being followed by entire customer base.
| | | ---------------Original Message---------------
From: david-homrighouse
Sent: Tuesday, January 11, 2011 1:15 PM
Subject: Time Eval for Jan 1st
Vic, I'd push back on SAP to ask them to explain that answer. That doesn't make sense to me either. Sometimes the analysts have to answer in a given timeframe, so once in a while someone throws something out there to keep to their SLA's, but the answer doesn't make sense.
Silly statement, but check the IT 2001 records aren't locked. We had an issue that would rear its head every once in a while that would lock the records for some employees after the supervisor approved time in CAT4.
Here's a stupid question Vikram. I'm gathering from your statement that the hourly workers actually worked on Jan 1, or are you saying that they should have been given the holiday pay for Jan 1? If I remember for my previous work, either the previous workday would be the New Year holiday, or the following Monday.
Another thought about the payroll calendar and work schedule, I remember that the work schedules would still count the holiday in Time Eval even though I had a rule set up in the calendar. I had to manually remove a value on the day for each work schedule to be sure I'm not double-counting. Is there a rule set up for Jan 1 in your payroll calendar to move the holiday to a different date? If not, and the hourly are supposed to get paid for that Saturday, double-check the work schedule to see if the values are present. You can compare one of the other holidays in the work schedule to see if the values are the same.
Does the control record for weekly have any date that would disallow 1/1/2011?
Do the records for 1/1/2011 transfer to HR with CAT6? You could force a record to resend for one person I believe, just to see if they're transferring.
This is all I have without being about to look at it. Maybe also list all the things you checked for and the what the results were. Good luck, I know you'll find it! |
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